24 July 07
Perhaps I was too tired. That’s as good an excuse as any. It beats admitting the obvious – I got outplayed.
I waded back into the poker scene recently. A couple good finished in tournaments created a little spark in the tiny bankroll, so I jumped into a very loose 10/20 game at the Muckleshoot. I was bleeding away chips playing good solid poker and losing to suckouts. I was actually happy with that (as opposed to pretending to be happy) because it meant they were willing to play to the river with crap. As long as I could get my premium hands to hold up, the money would come.
Sitting on A7 in the big blind, I call a raise and 4 of us see a flop of As-10h-6d. I’m first to act so I bet. Good player #1 raises and good Player #2 flat calls. My A7 hits the muck as fast as I can fling it.
At the river, #1 had a just a pair of 10s and #2 had pocket 8s.
As I walked away, I knew I got outplayed. The question is, if I discount collusion (if they were colluding, the correct move from #2 would have been a flop re-raise), can I give credit to #2 for thinking:
a. He (meaning me) might lay down top pair here.
b. Realizing that Player #1s flop raise was a move against me (as opposed to a real hand).
I think the answer to #1 is no, but #2 is possible. I had folded a couple hands on the flop when I was the initial raiser. I was obviously stuck. I think I was playing (or at least perceived to be playing) extra tight, and therefore might be able to be outplayed.
I’m just pleased that I left with a good portion of my bankroll still intact. You can’t outplay me if I’m not there, dammit!